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by littlestymaar
637 days ago
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> * P(correct) = (1-e)^n
* This diverges exponentially I don't get it, 1-e is between 0 and 1, so (1-e)^n converge to zero. Also, a probability cannot diverge since it's bounded by 1! I think the argument is that 1 - e^n converges to 1, which is what the law is about. |
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