[sddsdd]

No, Aumann's theorem proves a much more limited thing. For one thing, it assumes agents have a common prior, which is a very strong assumption not present in most cases where people "agree to disagree".

When the disagreement starts from foundational subjective disagreements, such as what constitutes malpractice or intent or incompetence, etc, the theorem has nothing to say, and it is perfectly reasonable to say that you "agree to disagree".