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by wyager 656 days ago
I studied wave mechanics in college, but the origin of mass didn't click for me until several years later (and in fact I don't believe it was every brought up in the context of wave mechanics, which seems like a problem in retrospect). The conceptualization that worked for me is this:

The normal wave equation is (ignoring constant factors like mass and propagation velocity):

d^2/dt^2 f(x,t) = d^2/dx^2 f(x,t)

<acceleration> = <pulled towards neighbors>

This says "if a point in the field is lower than its neighbors, it will be accelerated upwards. If a point in the field is higher than its neighbors, it will be accelerated downwards." This equation is the lowest-order description of most wave phenomena like sound waves, water surface waves, EM waves, etc. and it's usually pretty accurate.

If you look for solutions to this differential equation, you can get

f(x,t) = exp(i * w * (x±t))

w is the frequency of the wave

This tells you that the frequency and wavenumber of waves is determined by the same parameter (w), so they are proportional to each other

Now, what if we add a restoring force to this equation? This is a force that pulls the value of the field towards zero.

d^2/dt^2 f(x,t) = d^2/dx^2 f(x,t) - M^2 f(x,t)

M is just a parameter that tells you the strength of the restoring force. The force increases as the field gets farther from zero, like a spring.

Now, solutions to the equation look instead like

f(x,t) = exp(i*k*x ± i*w*t)

Where w^2 = k^2 + M^2

(or something like that, I need to re-derive this on paper, just going off memory, but I think if you plug it in it should work)

Notice that now, if you have a spacial frequency k, your temporal frequency is actually higher. In fact, if your spacial frequency k is 0 (corresponding to a stationary wave), your temporal frequency is still M!

This is what mass is. Having a non-zero frequency even if the wave is the same everywhere in space (which corresponds to no movement)

A field with no restoring force is e.g. the EM field, so photons are massless. The rate at which they oscillate in time is the same rate at which they oscillate in space. A massive particle has a restoring force, so its temporal frequency is higher than its spacial frequency.

In physics, this equation is often reordered like this:

d^2/dt^2 f(x,t) - d^2/dx^2 f(x,t) = - M^2 f(x,t)

(d^2/dt^2 - d^2/dx^2) f(x,t) = - M^2 f(x,t)

(d^2/dt^2 - d^2/dx^2) f(x,t) + M^2 f(x,t) = 0

◻ f(x,t) + M^2 f(x,t) = 0

(the d'alembert operator)

(◻ + M^2) f(x,t) = 0

Again, this is ignoring constant factors like c, h, etc.

The above equation is nice because it's relativistically invariant. The d'alembert operator is the contraction of the 4-momentup operator with itself, p^u p_u. This is a concept worth studying - tells you a lot about what mass, energy, velocity, and momentum actually are in a general sense

3 comments

> The rate at which they oscillate in time is the same rate at which they oscillate in space.

Wouldn't it be the opposite, that they do not oscillate in time at all so that they oscillate in space as rapidly as possible (since, as we know, time doesn't pass for photons)? And stationary particles don't oscillate in space, so they oscillate in time as rapidly as possible. Or are you using "oscillate" in a different sense here?

Photons have their spacial frequency directly locked to their temporal frequency.

Temporal frequency f

Spacial frequency k

f = k * c

Dimensional analysis: t^-1 = l^-1 * l t^-1

This is beautiful. Thanks for this. Is the choice of `M` for "the strength of the restoring force" intended to resemble `m` for mass?
Exactly. Didn't want to confuse it with the normal lowercase `m` that might show up in a wave equation derivation for masses-on-a-string or whatever

Should probably have mentioned - the final equation in my derivation is the Klein-Gordon equation, which is a relativistic equation for the behavior of spinless particles (and maybe bosons in general? I forget)

To get an equation that describes fermion behavior, you need to do another step, which I believe Dirac was the first to do; try very hard to take the square root of both sides of this equation, so you only have first-order derivatives. Dirac really dislike the idea of having a second-order equation, because it leaves an extra initial condition you have to specify. If you expand the p^u p_u term, you can see that it's impossible to take the square root of both sides using normal algebra, because you're trying to take the square root of the sum of multiple terms (d^2/dt^2 - d^2/dx^2 - d^2/dy^2 - d^2/dz^2) . You have to introduce gamma matrices or clifford algebras (IMO the better option) to do it, which seems like a weird and non-physically-motivated approach, but if you do it, spin up and spin down states miraculously fall out of the equation. Eigenchris on youtube has a video that helped me to figure out what was going on there

chatgpt convo to understand "temporal frequency" better: https://chatgpt.com/share/f8601523-2d3f-4497-a9b4-071d6a8778...
Looks correct to me, and I like that it pointed out that my final equation I wrote is the klein-gordon eqn. Forgot to mention that in the original post