[Rury]

I think what you do is simply tax stock ownership. Say you own 100 shares of stock. A 2% tax would mean the government would confiscate 2 of your shares, so you then own 98 shares. The government then proceeds to sell their confiscated shares on the open market (not at once, but spread out over the next year) and use the proceeds as tax revenue. You as an investor can maintain your 100 shares of stock by simply buying back the shares on the open market (or not and so pay a smaller capital gains tax than you otherwise would when you sell. This is your cost basis being adjusted). This also doesn't necessarily disincentive investing, as the tax proceeds can be used for funding jobs (ie investment), and owning stocks can still be worthwhile.

That said, I don't see why there's a need for a deduction here. There isn't one for property taxes. Sure there is one when you sell your property at a loss, and that's also already the case when selling stock. Additionally such a tax like this won't ever cause you to lose your entire stock ownership as it's always based on a fraction of your ownership. And, last but not least, you could also impose caps or progressions.

[jandrewrogers]

This tacitly assumes a pretty naive model of how these markets work. The dynamics of poor liquidity, dead equity, stock restrictions, intangible asset loss, etc materially change the outcomes you can expect. In many cases it may cost the government more than the revenue generated, and the counter-party as well. This doesn’t work like your retirement account. Similar types of scenarios historically created by civil litigation have had many adverse consequences to business in practice.

And property taxes are deductible in the US. I’m not sure where you got the impression they aren’t.

[Rury]

>This tacitly assumes a pretty naive model of how these markets work. The dynamics of poor liquidity, dead equity, stock restrictions, intangible asset loss, etc materially change the outcomes you can expect. In many cases it may cost the government more than the revenue generated, and the counter-party as well

In all seriousness, that is extremely unlikely to be the case, especially in broad terms. I mean, to purchase public stock at all you already must do so from a licensed broker, who mind you, is already required by law to report the cost basis of shares purchased by investors. To require them to regularly move 2% of shares owned by investors, to the government's ownership, would be rather trivial in cost to do. Hell, it could be completely automated.

And the cost of it doing that would likely be much less than property taxes, which, is a far less liquid asset, and much more costly to assess than equities, but is nonetheless profitable to tax. I mean the SP500 alone has a market cap of ~$47 trillion, which is, surprising almost the same exact value as the entire US real estate market, but much more liquid.

Additionally, whether it is even profitable at all could be besides the intent of the tax here. It doesn't necessarily have to be profitable, from which perspective, poor liquidity and changes in outcomes isn't a problematic at all. It could be even the intent.

> And property taxes are deductible in the US. I’m not sure where you got the impression they aren’t.

Okay fair. I suppose you could do something similar, but also don't see why it's necessary, just because we do so for other taxes.

[kortilla]

The vast majority of wealth is not traded on a liquid market like the S&P. Your scheme only works in nice divisible liquid assets.

Otherwise, when do you expect the government to actually realize its gains? If I have a house I intend to live in until I die and the govt take 2% of my stake away each year, when would it be allowed to force a sale to realize it?

Do I just lose my house once it has a majority stake? Does it just wait until I die? If it does, how is this better than an inheritance tax that is significantly easier to implement?