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by brigadier132 659 days ago
So just from skimming a translated version, it does not seem like Judges have the power to impose fines, ban unrelated companies that are owned by the same person, or ban things like VPNs. Am I missing something?
2 comments

You are not missing anything. The Brazilian court has done far more about things which it does not have any basis for. There are many previous HN threads about it as well. Some brazilians had detailed those instances in those threads.
I'm guessing a "skimmed translation" probably doesn't give you a complete understanding of Brazilian law...
Yes, thank you, that's why I've been asking people. Do you have an actual answer or do you just have nothing of value to add?