|
|
|
|
|
by samatman
665 days ago
|
|
Allow me to offer a brief proof of the contrary. You may select any real number between zero and infinity. We will call this R. I will give you 1/R, which is between zero and one. QED. I believe you're conflating range, where it is trivially true that [0,∞] is of greater extent than (0,1), with quantity, where it is not the case that there exists a greater quantity of values in the former range than in the latter. |
|
Should that have been “between one and infinity”? Otherwise you cannot claim that 1/R is between zero and one.