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by taeric 657 days ago
I'm a little confused on this. What is the evidence that it didn't work in the 60s/70s? My understanding is that, though we definitely had "stagflation" and other problems, none of them were caused by higher taxes at the top end.

Now, granted, I don't know that I have ever seen it put forth that they were ideal levels or anything. I just have never heard the top end tax rate blamed for that. Biggest thing I have seen it blamed on would be employer tied insurance and the like.

1 comments

In some countries, certainly the UK in the 1960s with its 90% top tax rate, the government would've collected more tax if the rate were lower because there would have been more economic activity to tax -- or so say a lot of economists. "Laffer curve" is a good thing to search for if you want to learn more.
I mean, this is largely to my point, though? Last I looked, it seemed research into the Laffer Curve largely found most countries set their rates below the ideal. Agreed that a 90% rate would almost certainly be too high, but the general feel was 40-60 would certainly cover the maximum rates. Some folks saying as high as 70, no?