[rtkwe]

I'm not saying ignore it just don't pretend we know what the Founders intended with every little nuance of language to justify your own preferred interpretation. Every other part of law and jurisprudence deals with the words as they are written not trying to scry into the past to peek in side the mind of dead men to figure out what they would have thought they meant and wanted to do.

And again how can you have commerce without labor? It's not separable from the rest of the process.

[pdonis]

> don't pretend we know what the Founders intended with every little nuance of language to justify your own preferred interpretation

I wasn't doing this, so whatever you are arguing against, it isn't me.

> Every other part of law and jurisprudence deals with the words as they are written

So you think that, for example, Wickard v. Filburn, in which the Supreme Court ruled that Congress could regulate a farmer growing wheat for his own use under the Commerce Clause, was just dealing with the words as they are written?

> how can you have commerce without labor

Of course producing things that will be traded in commerce requires labor, but that's irrelevant to the question of whether employment counts as "commerce", which is what I was asking about.

[rtkwe]

> I wasn't doing this, so whatever you are arguing against, it isn't me.

That's the core of what you're asking, "would they have understood it as part of commerce". That's literally asking us to peer into the past and into the minds of the Founders. It's the core problem of originalism too, we cannot actually know what they meant to mean or would think now.

> Wickard v. Filburn

The logic is sound in the case intrastate actions have interstate consequences. It wasn't the first time these kind of controls had been passed either. But also I don't think we should be wedded to the exact nature the Founders thought the country should take. They gave us a system with the ability to interpret their words and we should use it.

> Of course producing things that will be traded in commerce requires labor, but that's irrelevant to the question of whether employment counts as "commerce", which is what I was asking about.

So it IS an inextricable part of it but somehow doesn't count as part of it legally?

[pdonis]

> The logic is sound in the case intrastate actions have interstate consequences.

No, it isn't, because Article I, Section 8 does not say that Congress can regulate anything that might have "interstate consequences" for commerce. It only says Congress can regulate interstate commerce.

> It wasn't the first time these kind of controls had been passed either.

I know that. But it was a well know Supreme Court ruling whose disconnection from what the Constitution actually says should be obvious (and that observation is certainly not original with me).

> So it IS an inextricable part of it

Labor is, but that doesn't mean employment is. Labor is not the same thing as employment. A person can produce goods or services that are traded in interstate commerce without employing anyone.