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by camgunz
672 days ago
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I know a lot of this stuff is legally pretty new (though AGPLv3 is almost 17 years old now) and there's not a huge body of case law around it. But--and I'm earnestly asking here--is there case law where courts reach in and modify licenses separate from the authors' explicit intent? It's hard for me to imagine a court doing that, especially with all the reliance interests involved (I use AGPLv3 with the understanding that subclassing requires release, court says no, now my business model is toast). > I'd argue that "subclassing" essentially constitutes just using an interface (in the general sense, not in the Java sense) to some existing software, so in Minio's case, using their API would constitute a similar usage pattern -> my "derivative" work must now be GPL licensed. No, again the difference is incorporation. In order to subclass something you have to incorporate it into your code. |
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What are you on about? The explicit purpose of a license is that it's users do not have to worry about anyone else's "explicit intent". A license needs to be unambigious about it's terms, else it's just not a good license, hence see the discussion in this thread about the meaning of derivative works.
It may very well be that the FSF/RMS/GNU Project had some intent on it's use when creating the GPL/AGPL v3, but a court in another jurisdiction will not care. I have no idea how to get a hold of the FSF when I'm being sued for license violations in europe and even if so, I doubt a court would care about the FSF's interpretation, given that they're likely not a party to the proceedings.
I'm surprised that people on an US centric site believe that intent in US jurisprudence matters, because in a legal system largely based on precedence, it really does not.
> No, again the difference is incorporation. In order to subclass something you have to incorporate it into your code.
You have to do the same thing in order to use API's. I'm sorry, unless I don't understand something here, this doesn't make sense.