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by qingcharles
669 days ago
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It's hard to criminally charge someone for non-violently violating someone's constitutional rights. You can, perhaps, use an "Official Misconduct" statute as the basis for the charge, but I've not heard of it done. There are federal criminal statutes for violently violating someone's constitutional rights under the US constitution. Edit: I'm probably wrong: https://news.ycombinator.com/item?id=41241327 |
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I guess it can be tricky to prosecute local police because it has to be interference from outside and people don't like that?