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by a1369209993
692 days ago
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> The number of floats between 0 and 1 is the same as the number of floats between 1 and 3 No, the number of floats between 0 and 1 is (approximately) the same as the number of floats between 1 and positive infinity. And this is the correct way for it work: 1/x has roughly the same range and precision as x, so you don't need (as many) stupid obfuscatory algebraic transforms in your formulas to keep your intermediate values from over- or under-flowing. |
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But a more theoretical approach will probably be needed to see if the same ratio exists for 64 bit floats.