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by krisoft 695 days ago
> at 34 years of age, about 4.3% of men have died

I think what you are saying is that 34 years after being born 4.3% of male individuals are dead.

In my understanding if someone dies when they are 10 years old they will never be "34 years of age". This probably feels nitpicky but it has thrown me into a loop of trying to understand what you are saying.

(Not even mentioning that I read the table you linked as 4.2% not 4.3%)

2 comments

Saying 95.7% of men live to at least 34 would be more clear. (i have no idea if that stat is legit or not, i'm just writing it differently)
That sounds even better! Thank you for that rephrasing.
This seems needlessly pedantic as the meaning is still very clear.

And you did mention it, by saying you weren't mentioning it.

> This seems needlessly pedantic as the meaning is still very clear.

As I said it wasn’t clear to me. The two meaning which was fighting in my mind were the one i wrote and that the percentage is the probability of a male dying in their 34th year of life. Had to consult with the table to figure out which one they mean.

> And you did mention it, by saying you weren't mentioning it.

Well spotted. Exactly because the discrepancy troubles me. It either means that I don’t understand how to read or what to read in the table (in which case I would love to be corrected) or that the commenter made a typo (which doesn’t matter at all). If i were certain it is a typo I wouldn’t mention it. But since I can’t be certain that the error is not “in my equipment” i shared the observation hoping to get clarification.