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by mattmaroon
699 days ago
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Wouldn’t the most risk-efficient strategy both depend on a large number of factors and also, in any case, start off with a higher allocation of equities and move over time to a higher allocation of bonds? The stock market has never not outperformed bonds over a 45 year period, maybe even half that, so if you’re 20 and putting 40% of your savings in an account you can’t touch until your 65, you’re kind of just chucking money down a well right? |
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Not really. The most risk-efficient strategy optimizes the ratio between expected return (less the risk-free rate) and volatility (standard deviation), regardless of the absolute value of those parameters.
If that optimal allocation has too much risk, such as for the near-retiree, then the investor can keep a fraction of their portfolio in the mix and the other half in cash (money market, paying the risk-free rate). If the allocation has too little risk, then the inverse applies: borrow on margin (at approximately the risk-free rate) to invest more than 100% of net assets into the mix.