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by hgomersall 713 days ago
No, the first century began Jan 1, 0000. Whether that year actually existed or not is irrelevant - we shouldn't change our counting system in the years 100, 200 etc.
2 comments

The calendar goes from 1 BC to 1 AD, there is no year 0.
There is no year zero according to first-order pedants. Second-order pedants know that there is a year zero in both the astronomical year numbering system and in ISO 8601, so whether or not there is a year zero depends on context.

It's ultimately up to us to decide how to project our relatively young calendar system way back into the past before it was invented. Year zero makes everything nice. Be like astronomers and be like ISO. Choose year zero.

Yes but, is there such a thing as a zeroth-order pedant, someone not pedantic about year ordinality? As a first-order meta-pedant, this would be my claim.

Moreover, I definitely find the ordinality of pedantry more interesting than the pedantry of ordinality.

Interesting indeed. I suppose third-order pedantry must be "jerk".
Thank you for your service.
> It's ultimately up to us to decide how to project our relatively young calendar system way back into the past before it was invented. Year zero makes everything nice. Be like astronomers and be like ISO. Choose year zero.

Or, just to add more fuel to the fire, we could use the Holocene/Human year numbering system to have a year zero and avoid any ambiguity between Gregorian and ISO dates.

https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Holocene_calendar

Talking about standards let's not pick and choose.

First, let's get rid of miles and feet, then we could even discuss this.

If only—I think most US citizens who actually work with units of measurement on a daily basis would love to switch to the metric system. Unfortunately, everyone else wants to keep our “freedom units” (and pennies)
We are all defacto ISO adherents by virtue of our lives being so highly computer-mediated and standardized. I’m fully on board with stating that there absolutely was a year zero, and translating from legacy calendars where necessary.
I vote for a year zero and for using two's complement for representing years before zero (because it makes computing durations that span zero a little easier).
What does that even mean? Do we allow for the distortion due to the shift from the Julian to Gregorian calendars, such that the nth year is 11 days earlier? Of course not, because that would be stupid. Instead, we accept that the start point was arbitrary and reference to our normal counting system rather than getting hung up about the precise number of days since some arbitrary epoch.
> What does that even mean?

It means just what it says. In the common calendar, the year after 1 BC (or BCE in the new notation) was 1 AD (or CE in the new notation). There was no "January 1, 0000".

As I said twice, whether that date actually existed or not is irrelevant.
> whether that date actually existed or not is irrelevant.

No, it isn't, since you explicitly said to start the first century on the date that doesn't exist. What does that even mean?

The first day of the 1st Century is Jan 1, 1 AD.

The point is that some days got skipped over the centuries, but there's no need to make the Centuries have weird boundaries.

0 CE = 1 BCE

10 C = 50 F = 283.15 K

1 = 0.999…

Things can have more than one name. The existence of the year 0 CE is not in question. What’s in question is whether that’s a good name for it or not.

Hence why the parent wrote "Whether that year actually existed or not is irrelevant".

They might or might not have a point, but they already addressed yours.

Have a read of this, it’s not how you think it is. https://www.historylink.org/File/2012