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by fjkdlsjflkds
708 days ago
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(After re-reading the blog post with more care...) you are right, and thanks for the correction. Either way, the point stands... the improvement in using a full linear model (that predicts 0.45 or 0.55, depending on state) is marginal compared to the baseline model that always predicts 0.50, as you demonstrate with your code. To me, this doesn't seem paradoxical... the predictor is indeed providing little information over the "let's flip a coin to predict someone's voting preference" null/baseline predictor, since people's preferences (in aggregate) are almost equivalent to "flipping a coin". note: I meant "sum", but it's the same, since the ratio between sums of squares is equivalent to the ratio between mean squares |
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Yes, I think we don't disagree. I was just puzzled by the "little variance left to explain" remark.
> note: I meant "sum", but it's the same, since the ratio between sums of squares is equivalent to the ratio between mean squares
You're right, sum of squares made sense if it was just for the ratio.