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by lisper
714 days ago
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No. In fact, my guess is that you can prove there is no such function. But (and I confess I have not thought this all the way through so I might be wrong) while producing such a mapping would be sufficient to carry out the equivalence proof (if it were possible, which I suspect it is not) it is not necessary. All that is necessary (I think) is to show that if a machine is non-circular, then it is possible to produce an equivalent machine by using a halting state which is entered after the machine prints its final "symbol of the first kind". And that seems like it should not be hard, though I concede I may have overstated my case by calling it trivial. (You also have to prove the opposite, that a machine with a halting state can be converted into a Turing-style TM, but that really is obviously trivial.) |
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I think you were a bit quick in dismissing the OP paper based only on its title.