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by ivanbakel
717 days ago
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>Farmers were going bankrupt because there was so much food that they couldn't sell. And the originally-quoted passage is about farmers destroying crops as part of price controls due to overproduction. Could you provide any kind of evidence that the supply of food was evenly shared? Steinbeck spent a lot of time with impoverished farm workers before writing the Grapes of Wrath, so I'm inclined to believe his description of them. |
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I'm not obligated to find a proof against fiction, when all real accounts show food prices almost halving in a decade, in fact I would be willing to speculate that the dust storms that came were in fact caused by the abandonment and large areas being left unsown, with no cover to hold the soil together.