Presumably they're objecting to "hope the gentrification raises property value substantially for the home-owning locals who've been here for years". Which presumably was the opposite of what the poster meant to write.
is the opposite what he meant to write? It was always my assumption that he was correct; gentrification raises property values, so "home-owning locals" make money off of their real estate value going up, while renters will be potentially pushed out (or stay and pay more in rent). Am I missing something?