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by JimothyPhtevens 741 days ago
Maybe I missed something, but I think you agree with the other person more than you think. The second to last paragraph in particular explains why.

"HOW CAN MORE THAN 100% OF A COMPANY'S SHARES BE SHORTED? Once the short seller borrows the shares from the lender and then sells them back into the market, the new owner of the shares is free to lend them out, just as the previous owner did, and have no idea they are on the other side of a short sale. Settlement time is two days after the transaction."

1 comments

Right, so their original premise is…still confusing.