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by MuffinFlavored 742 days ago
for every buyer that is a seller

if the seller is happy at the price they are selling at and the buyer is happy at the price they are buying at, where does the "someone had to lose a dollar" come from?

if the seller sold to the buyer, then it went up, the only "dollars lost" would be hypothetical opportunity cost had the seller decided to hold instead.

am i missing something?

1 comments

Yeah, it’s called greater fool theory for a reason.
Is the person who posted this

"Yep, for every person who gains a dollar someone had to lose a dollar. No value was created."

right or wrong?

Essentially, the only thing that causes the price to go up is new people buying into the market. That's the only "value" here. This is why it's called The Greater Fool's theory, is you keep passing the bag over to the greater fool who will pay more for it than you.
For goods that has utility, like a car, wrong.

For investments of which the only purpose is to make more money, right.

Of course it's not that black and white, since every investment technically has at least two utility purposes: 1) hedging 2) emotional utility (the false hope of getting rich).