[n4r9]

Pages 1-3 simply show that (c-a) and (b-a) divide (a+b-c)^n (for even n), assuming they are a solution to FLT.

You then define g to be (a+b-c)^n/(c-a)(b-a), an integer.

I follow you this far. I do not see why g divides a+b-c, and I don't think the argument on p.4 proves it.

[levn11]

I won't reply further to this question about g, i do think i've been clear. and at this point you can be on your merry way still thinking it's wrong. but you simply misunderstood.

[n4r9]

I've read your paper and followed the arguments and this is where I believe it falls down. Either that or it needs much better explanation.

[levn11]

it's a proof by contradiction. g would divide a+b-c IF a+b-c are integers.

for n=2, g(2)=(c-a)(c-b)g_1(2) and g_1(2)=2.

So only when n=2 is it true that g divides a+b-c.

Otherwise we get a contradiction that it divides. since then, g_1(n) for n>2 is not a factor of a+b-c, we can safely assume at least one of them was not an integer.

[n4r9]

I honestly don't follow your last sentence. Why does g not being a factor of a+b-c mean they're not integers?

[levn11]

it follows specifically from the form on pages 1-3. i would recommend reading it with fresh eyes after a good night's rest.

[n4r9]

It doesn't follow from anything on p1-3. Certainly not directly. If you were being genuine about this I think you would appreciate an opportunity to improve the proof rather than resort to insults!