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by kgeist 749 days ago
>Since palatized consonants go together with "soft" vowels, one may omit this distinction in writing. But the difference is still there.

Sure, many languages have palatalized consonants, influenced by surrounding phonetic context (such as, vowel harmony in Turkic makes surrounding consonants "softer" too).

The true "contrastive palatalization" I was referring to is about having minimal pairs where words have totally different meanings based on whether the consonants are palatalized or not.

For example, in Russian (where I specify the palatalization of a preceding consonant with ʲ):

  mer "a mayor"
  mʲer "of measures"
  mʲerʲ "measure!" (imperative)
Latin alphabet has no means to express it naturally, while in Cyrillic there're already all the required letters for it. Just omitting it in writing will introduce confusion.