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by philwelch
751 days ago
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“Arab” is a cultural identity that is not entirely equivalent to genetics. During the mid-20th century, Egypt was a center of pan-Arab nationalism, and even briefly formed a “United Arab Republic” with Syria. That fell through pretty quickly, but even today Egypt calls itself an “Arab Republic”. This isn’t to claim that Egyptian people today universally consider themselves to be Arabs, but many of them apparently do. Regardless, I would still question the basic premise that contemporary Egyptians have some sort of exclusive claim to the archeological heritage of ancient Egypt. Almost every aspect of ancient Egyptian culture—its law, religion, written and spoken languages—have been long destroyed, forgotten, or replaced, in many cases deliberately. (Yes, I know Coptic is still used as a liturgical language by the Christian minority, but even they natively speak Arabic.) What exactly gives Egyptians an exclusive claim to an ancient culture that’s as foreign to them as anyone else—blood and soil? Maybe I’m being naive but I would prefer to treat the ancient world as the common heritage of all of humanity, with its preservation and study as a common good than to treat it as some sort of private ethno-nationalistic domain. |
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Extend this logic and then any country who want to consider inclusive claim on this matter to abolish inheritance law. Why do you have exclusive claim to your dead relative wealth? Is that because you maybe lived together or only blood?
Or why only ancient world, let's treat the Modern world like that as well. And then let's distribute the wealth.
> Maybe I’m being naive
I do agree with you.