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by constantcrying 758 days ago
Japan has the same foods available, by the same US corporations. Why are they seemingly immune to it?

>Combining that with an individualistic culture

So that is the only change since the 50s? Seems like a very weak explanation.
1 comments
throwaway44773 758 days ago
The US has already strongly reduced the use of a very addictive substance in the past by making it culturally unacceptable in the case of cigarettes. Japan has the same culture already with food, where there is strong cultural pressure to not abuse food. Perhaps it is time to bring back shame towards overeating?
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constantcrying 758 days ago
The US has also seriously reduced the use of sugar over the last decades.

I agree that overeating should be shamed, but was that needed 70 years ago? To be honest I don't believe the cultural issue. Which percentage of US citizens believe that they should loose weight? Likely a very large proportion.

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