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by somenameforme
764 days ago
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Here [1] is the original paper. Though he does not state as such, I'm sure the idea of man vs woman was just an example. It could be anything, but I think it inherently must be something. Generalizing this down to being human or not greatly simplifies the test, because the identity aspect is basically just free information for the interrogator. With or without the identity, he could still ask the exact same questions. The only difference is the domain of viable answers is greatly limited with identities. And the more specific the identity, the more the real person will be able to reveal themselves, and the more difficulty the imposter will have impersonating them. [1] - https://redirect.cs.umbc.edu/courses/471/papers/turing.pdf |
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I don't see indication that the machine must pretend to be human in addition to some other characteristic of the second player. I think the reason you see others as having "generalized it down" is that your interpretation is not apparent in the text.
> the more specific the identity, the more the real person will be able to reveal themselves, and the more difficulty the imposter will have impersonating them.
Definitely makes for a more difficult problem (arbitrarily difficult, even) and a potentially interesting extension.
Currently to me it doesn't seem as insightful as Turing's original proposal - there's no more inherent human benchmark of 50%, for instance, since humans can also be bad at impersonating some specific characteristic.