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by rvbissell
758 days ago
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That's an interesting statement about rationals. My intuition would be to consider them a subset of the reals, and for natural numbers to be a subset of the rationals. How is my intuition failing me, in this case? EDIT: found the answer: with Cantor's diagonalization, you can count all the rationals -- effectively mapping each one to a natural number. Since this mapping is demonstrably possible, they have the same cardinality. |
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