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by rjh29 779 days ago
Now you've provided an explanation I can see you're right (but downvoted). We would say Thomas-es in the possessive so it's written Thomas's.
1 comments

It is easy to observe that this "rule" is false. Even though everyone pronounces it "thomases", some spell that "Thomas's", others spell it "Thomas'". It is a purely stylistic spelling difference, and both forms are in common use, in literate environments. So, there is no one rule about how this word is spelled. And since neither form reflects the pronunciation, both are purely conventional, they don't have a much deeper meaning to lean on.