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by oarsinsync 772 days ago
When a word ends with an s, the use of an apostrophe without another s is valid English.

Thomas’ and Thomas’s are the same thing.

2 comments

I actually had to look this up, it depends if the possessive form is actually said with one or two Ss. For instance, it's Jones's and Bridges'.

https://grammar.collinsdictionary.com/easy-learning/what-are... https://www.sussex.ac.uk/informatics/punctuation/apostrophe/...

lol no. arguably the word ain't is more proper English than Chris' or boss'
It is trivial to find more than sufficiently authoritative source that cover the rules that make "Chris'" and "boss'" perfectly value contracted possessives in English. [1]

However, it's English: there isn't just one rule, another rule can also be valid and might be the one you're familiar with on a day to day basis. That doesn't mean any other way to say or write the same thing is wrong, it's just a pattern you never saw. Like someone going "lol snuck isn't a real word, it's sneaked!" and then you hand them a dictionary and they learn something new about their own language.

[1] https://www.ox.ac.uk/sites/files/oxford/media_wysiwyg/Univer...

Page not found while accessing your link.
You pronounce both of your examples with two S phonemes at the end. Putting that in the written form is absolutely Ok.
> You pronounce both of your examples with two S phonemes at the end.

Um... what? Pronouncing a possessive suffix with /səs/ isn't valid anywhere. The only possibility is /səz/. Same goes for the plural suffix.

Being confident doesn't change the fact that you're misinformed about English grammar.
Lol yes though?