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by runarberg 780 days ago
The crime of apartheid under international law only looks at existing regimes and whether they apply oppression along racial lines. It does not include provisions on historic oppression done by the ancestors of the currently oppressed. That would be ridiculous.

So saying: “But they did it to a different people, dozens of generations ago” is not admissible as a justification for the crime of apartheid for the ICC. In fact the crime of apartheid has no clauses for any justification, at all, under international law.

1 comments

People are using “apartheid” without the technical, legal meaning and that is what I have a problem with.

Here is a list of countries that have been accused of apartheid:

- China

- India

- Iran

- Israel

- Malaysia

- Myanmar

- North Korea

- Nigeria

- Qatar

- Saudi Arabia

- Soviet Union

- Sudan

- United States

I would be interested to know whether any country, other than South Africa, has been found guilty of the crime of apartheid by the ICC and what the repercussions for said regime had been.

https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Allegations_of_apartheid_by_co...