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by SturgeonsLaw 785 days ago
There's a couple of paragraphs in the link that address this, although given the nature of the claims it's hard to put a number on it:

> While the numbers listed above (and below) are valuable and vital, it is important to keep in mind that the true rates are likely much higher, especially in less developed countries. Depression is much more likely to be diagnosed in highly developed countries, whose more robust health care infrastructures are far better equipped to identify and treat mental illnesses.

> Therefore, less developed countries do not necessarily have less depression—rather, their treatment of mental illnesses often takes a back seat to broader concerns such as hunger, disease, and sanitation. In fact, the World Health Organization estimates that 76–85% of people suffering from mental disorders in low- and middle-income countries lack access to the necessary treatment. Moreover, even in developed nations, many cases of mental illness go undiagnosed and unreported because the patients are either ashamed of their illness or unaware that it's a medically treatable condition.

So I'm wondering what the data displayed on the page is actually showing us. Certainly, the initial impressions that I got is that the first world lifestyle is associated with a kind of malaise, but is this just showing differences in diagnostic rates? Or a combination of the two, if so, how to untangle that and get a useful comparison between countries?