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by TeMPOraL
796 days ago
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Yeah, but why is the same situation present, and the same explanation given, in Poland, EU? Or, seeing from other comments, plenty other countries around the world? I'm seconding 'viraptor here - this isn't a good enough explanation. It doesn't stand up to scrutiny, and doesn't mesh well with day-to-day experience. Individual doctors I know seem to have very little influence over anything, and they're first in line to the protests about working conditions and pay. |
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1. Doctors have a lot of political influence because they are popular. This means they can get away with things that other industries mostly can't.
2. State provision of medical care corrupts the system, as I describe sidethread: https://news.ycombinator.com/item?id=40030452
One way to drive "medical costs" down is to ensure that the supply of medical care is low. This also drives prices up. This means that the incentives of the regulatory body are directly contrary to the incentives of the people supposedly benefiting from the regulation.
(And doctors and hospitals are happy with this, because such a system boils down to telling them "we want you to do less work, but for more money".)
3. (Tangentially, note that the general model of "restrict supply, subsidize demand" is incredibly common. It's popular both ways; the first part helps a small but politically active and highly motivated group, and the second part pretends to help the populace in general.)