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by robomartin 5148 days ago
Hypothetical: I lend a hammer to a neighbor. He then goes and, after building the cabinet he needed the hammer for, kills two people with it.

Why am I liable for his actions?

This is the part of the rent-your-car story I just don't get. She had nothing to do with it. She should have zero liability. That's the part of the legal system that is really messed-up. Liability for this accident should sit squarely on the shoulders of those directly involved in causing it. The only way she should be liable is if the car had a known defect that caused the accident.

1 comments

The difference is that car accidents are a foreseeable and inherent risk of car operation, but not hammer operation.
Car accidents are foreseeable and inherent, but this guy was driving in the wrong lane, what if he intentionally did it as a suicide (not saying he did, but hypothetically).

What if someone rented a car and intentionally drove it into a crowd of people?