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by om2
808 days ago
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> the cost of changing v is p and the cost of changing x is F I’m sure the equation is right and all but this seems sideways in terms of an intuitive explanation - velocity changes position, and force changes momentum. Force doesn’t directly change position (only indirectly via changing momentum) and momentum doesn’t change velocity, having momentum is consistent with a constant velocity. It doesn’t even make much sense to me to think of integrals as being about “costs of changing”, would that not be a derivative? |
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