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by chimeracoder 812 days ago
> However, criminalization may be a less worse way to mitigate the impacts of the problem.

There's no data to support this claim, and copious evidence against it.

> This feels like "no true Scotsman" at policy-scale: it's unscientific to point out the flaws in actual sausage making as the reason the Platonically ideal sausage turned out poorly in reality. Those political characteristics are inherent to the process! If one path to utopia requires pissing voters off, then it's more logical to engineer a different path to get there while placating voters, because the former in untenable in a democracy.

It's not a "no true Scotsman" to point out that the measure that voters passed was never actually implemented. Some of the provisions weren't even due to kick in until later this year!

Ironically, your statement is a great example of begging the question (in the correct usage of the term): by your logic, any world in which decriminalization is not already implemented is "proof" that it's a bad policy, because if it were, the Logical Politicians™ would implement it, as that would surely appease voters.

In reality, what happened is simple: voters approved an initiative, elected officials didn't like what voters chose, so they just refused to implement it, then called it a "failure".

1 comments

> It's not a "no true Scotsman" to point out that the measure that voters passed was never actually implemented. Some of the provisions weren't even due to kick in until later this year!

If the voters passed a measure, that caused substantial negative perception before it was fully implemented, then who's to blame?

Maybe the voters should have been clearer on the implementation sequencing.

> In reality, what happened is simple: voters approved an initiative, elected officials didn't like what voters chose, so they just refused to implement it, then called it a "failure".

How does this not suffice as an excuse for any bad results from decriminalization? What constitutes a sufficiently perfect implementation to validate negative outcomes?

> If the voters passed a measure, that caused substantial negative perception before it was fully implemented, then who's to blame?

> Maybe the voters should have been clearer on the implementation sequencing.

This is, again, begging the question. You're assuming the consequent.

Voters were clear on what they wanted. They directly voted for and passed a specific bill. Elected officials - not voters - refused to implement what voters chose. Then, elected officials - not voters - repealed the bill.

It's not like this was repealed by popular vote. As of today, there's not even any evidence that the same voters who approved this in 2020 have somehow changed their minds and oppose it today.

You're arguing from a position of pure speculation to support an a priori conclusion, and that's simply not logically sound.

> How does this not suffice as an excuse for any bad results from decriminalization?

This is ridiculous. You can't judge the effect of a policy that's not implemented. If you're willing to do that, you've left the realm of science altogether and might as well argue for policy based on astrology, or augury.

So your position is that no changes were made as a result of Measure 110?