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by DannyBee 808 days ago
No. Its written as a set of negatives- it shall be unlawful for someone not x to do y

Here it is saying it’s illegal unless you are an official acting under color of law and there is one party consent

1 comments

There’s three negatives in the sentence you quoted.
Fair, you are correct, i was mixing up c and d.

Then the part they elided from d comes into play: "unless such communication is intercepted for the purpose of committing any criminal or tortious act in violation of the Constitution or laws of the United States or of any State."

Unfair trade practice (and other things count here) since it doesn't have to be criminal, only a civil violation :)