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by colpabar 815 days ago
to who? to you apparently, right?
1 comments

no, the addition of 'to me' makes it objectively clearer. unless you're intentionally being obtuse, right?
Sorry I'm confused - clearer to you?
clearly.
Thanks for clarifying - I usually assume that when someone makes a subjective claim about how something "seems" that the "to me" part is implied, obvious even, but I forgot where I was. By the way, do you have a peer reviewed study to back up your claims?