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by dlkf
820 days ago
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Your critique of the use of ”bigger” in your strawman applies equally to your own use of ”longer” - neither loop will ever terminate. So in what sense is either one longer? The diagonal proof is arguing that there is no bijection from N to {0, 1}∞ , despite the fact that both are infinite. The sense in which the latter is ”bigger” is that there are always elements left over that are covered by N. |
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Neither. That's my point. Literally any definition of something infinite can always be reduced to a procedure that recursively transforms or observes some prior state. To say that one of these functions can produce more distinct states than another is pointless, because the procedure that produces the most states will always be the one that you ran the most times.
There is nothing observably infinite, since it would take infinite time to observe that any given thing was infinite. The only possible proof of infinity would be a machine that runs infinitely quickly. e.g. https://qntm.org/responsibility