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by iteygib 819 days ago
I agree with the notion that governments shouldn't be able to coerce communication companies to echo their own positions. However, if they use a built in function of the software (like a 'delete comment' button) to moderate their account, then I don't see how that's a 1st Amendment violation.

However, even with the first point, I am a little confused. Maybe someone can explain the legality of this to me: the 1st Amendment talks about Congress not being able to establish laws to prevent freedom of speech. Is a government official asking a social company to do something count as the creation of a law? This in contrast to Congress actually creating a law to make a social media company do something regarding free speech, which would be a violation.

1 comments

I think there are two issues here. First of all, the freedom of speech issue has generally broadened to include all of government. Generally government can't ask a company to restrict speech, Even outside of a law But there is more to the first amendment. We also have a right to communicate with the government. If that avenue is shutdown, it can be a first amendment violation as well.