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by 7thaccount 820 days ago
Isn't that illegal in the US and opens up doors for lawsuits?
2 comments

Likely yes: https://www.dol.gov/general/topic/discrimination/agedisc (second paragraph)

I'm not sure what if means by "certain" applicants and employees, but my guess would be jobs where it's relevant, like physical labor, are excluded.

I would imagine it's extremely hard to prove though. The prospective employer could just maintain that the applicant "wouldn't be a good culture fit" or similar.
Disparate Impact laws mean that it's not always necessary to disprove a pretext.
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