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by ethbr1
845 days ago
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The "when applicable" is ambiguous, but IANAL. Does it become applicable to open source when "The resulting technology will benefit the public"? That seems the clearest read. If so, OpenAI would have to argue that open sourcing their models wouldn't benefit the public, which... seems difficult. They'd essentially have to argue that the public paying OpenAI to use an OpenAI-controlled model is more beneficial. Or does "when applicable" mean something else? And if so, what? There aren't any other sentences around that indicate what else. And it's hard to argue that their models technically can't be open sourced, given other open source models. |
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After all, the AOI doesn't specify who determines "when applicable," or how "when applicable" is determined, or even when "when applicable" is determined. Without any of those, "when applicable" is a functionally meaningless phrase, intended to mollify unsavvy investors like Musk without constraining or binding the entity in any way.
If so, OpenAI would have to argue that open sourcing their models wouldn't benefit the public, which... seems difficult.
No, they don't have to do anything at all, since they get to decide when "when applicable" applies. And how. And to what...
Or does "when applicable" mean something else? And if so, what? There aren't any other sentences around that indicate what else. And it's hard to argue that their models technically can't be open sourced, given other open source models.
Exactly. That's the problem. There needs to be more to make "when applicable" mean something, and the lawyers drafting the agreement deliberately left that out because it's not intended to mean anything.