Hacker News new | ask | show | jobs
by BlueTemplar 847 days ago
Python does follow the convention, but what I am wondering now is why did FORTRAN break it ?
2 comments
asplake 847 days ago
Fortran is old – 1958 onwards. It has precedence here, though at what point it separated the two behaviours into mod and modulo functions I don’t know.

Edit: From what I can tell, standardised in Fortran 90, presumably older than that.

link
BlueTemplar 847 days ago
My point is that Fortran doesn't have precedence on math, see this comment by Austin Feller :

http://python-history.blogspot.com/2010/08/why-pythons-integ...

link
wombatpm 847 days ago
Maybe because FORTRAN arrays index from 1 by default?
link