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by arp242
849 days ago
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If the data is public or semi-public then chances are I consented to display that data there. I consented to it being used on that site, for the purpose of that site. Not for random other companies. And most scraping isn't done by users. It's done by companies. For profit. Often for less than enlightened reasons. LinkedIn is a good example: I want my data displayed to people on that job site. I don't want it harvested by every recruiter under the sun who will then spam me. I certainly don't want that data sold between those recruiters long after I deleted my account on LinkedIn. Tinder and sites like that are also an obvious example: yes it's (semi-)public, but I also wouldn't want it to be scraped and harvested by some company – I just want it to be shown temporarily to a limited set of people. |
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And, in general, I take the fact that you published something on the Internet as a tacit moral consentment for the rest of the world to use it how they want.
This comes with a couple of big asterisks, because (1) Copyright law exists, and I generally try to not break the law, even if I don't agree with it. But the discussion in this thread is mostly separate from copyright: for instance, I don't think a court would see someone scraping and redistributing data from someone's LinkedIn profile as a copyright infringement case.
And (2) because I think that in some specific cases, using published data can be morally wrong, but not as a general rule.