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by roenxi
845 days ago
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That seems a bit long winded since this situation is a direct result of Bayes' theorem. It seems to me equivalent to say: Bayes' Theorem holds because it can be proven. Therefore, situations can be constructed where considering identical data without considering priors gives nonsense conclusions. For example if we happen to know as a prior that P(outcome of experiment is a certain ratio) = P(experiment is completed) then that must be considered when interpreting the results. |
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