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by mjh2539
846 days ago
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Well, for one, public rights of way do exist on, and adjacent to, every public road. But that's kind of besides the point. I think there's probably many reasons, but here's a few I can think of: 1. The trails and such that warrant these rights never existed in the first place.
2. The rights come from long-established customs, which again, never got the chance to get going in the United States.
3. The legal/juridical establishment in the United States tended to care more about protecting the rights of property owners than protecting the freedom to travel (in this limited respect). |
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There's another amusing historical accident - Blackstone.[1] Blackstone's Commentaries[2] are a self-contained four volume set on how the English legal system worked. They had a strong influence on the US legal system. Most of the drafters of the Constitution read them. There were few if any law libraries, but many copies of Blackstone.
Blackstone was a property rights absolutist. He wrote:
"So great moreover is the regard of the law for private property, that it will not authorize the least violation of it; no, not even for the general good of the whole community. If a new road, for instance, were to be made through the grounds of a private person, it might perhaps be extensively beneficial to the public; but the law permits no man, or set of men, to do this without consent of the owner of the land. In vain may it be urged, that the good of the individual ought to yield to that of the community; for it would be dangerous to allow any private man, or even any public tribunal, to be the judge of this common good, and to decide whether it be expedient or no."[3]
This is further than English law goes. US law arose from that interpretation. That's the power of writing the most widely read book on the subject.
[1] https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/William_Blackstone
[2] https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Commentaries_on_the_Laws_of_En...
[3] https://press-pubs.uchicago.edu/founders/documents/v1ch16s5....