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by silverquiet
854 days ago
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I’m fairly sure there’s no legal requirement for a company to put shareholders first. I’ll sound a bit Marxist for a moment and say that we’ve just so internalized capitalist propaganda that we collectively seem to believe that now. |
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You're likely correct that there is no explicit legal requirement.
However (as I understand it), it stems from the implied requirement that derives from the fact that a company's directors have a fiduciary duty to act in good faith in the interests of the company.
People who agree with the implied requirement argue that "in the interests of the company" equates to "for the benefit of its members". And so you then ask yourself who are "its members" and that's where you end up at "its shareholders".
I believe in the jargon, this is referred to as "the common law approach of shareholder primacy".
Going back to the "legal requirement" front, there is, for example s172(1) of the Companies Act 2006[1], which starts by saying:
So "must" is in the context of "benefit of its members as a whole", and a director is "only" required to "have regard" for other stakeholders that the legislation lists in (a)–(f). Its a bit of a word-salad, but effectively appears to re-enforce shareholder primacy.[1]https://www.legislation.gov.uk/ukpga/2006/46/section/172