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by switch007 849 days ago
Just to be clear, within the entire 5 year period a defect is assumed to be a manufacturing fault? If not, isn’t it easy for the seller to claim damage/wear and tear etc?

We have 6 years in the UK but only in the first 6 months is a defect assumed to be a manufacturing defect, which is naturally the period with your strongest rights and when it’s easy to get a repair or replacement. After that, you need to argue quite a lot
2 comments
magicalhippo 849 days ago
Yeah, if it's not due to wear items (break pads on a bike say) and you've only used it normally, it's assumed to be a manufacturing fault and it's on the shop to prove it's not.

For example if a mobile phone stops working they can't just take a look and say "oh water damage", they have to open it up and show the water stains or similar.

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bryanrasmussen 849 days ago
depends perhaps on the part of the product? For example induction stovetops are notorious for just stopping to work seemingly at random, and thus if you call up and say hey it stopped working you might not get as much pushback.
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