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by gnicholas 858 days ago
GP does not suggest a valuation of zero. GP says that the profit and valuation is closer to zero. It is not crystal clear if this means "closer to zero than it is to $236k" or "closer to zero than $236k is" (i.e., less than $236k). The second is undoubtedly true.

The first may also be true, but would depend on the cost at which the labor can be outsourced reliably, and what oversight would need to be done of these outsourced activities.
2 comments
csa 858 days ago
Fair enough. I changed my comment to “closer to $0”.

I still think that even talking about or towards $0 is bizarre. Saying something like “less than $236k” would have been much more meaningful if op meant either thing you said.

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refulgentis 858 days ago
The other poster is right, if you told someone who knows about business valuations about this conversation they'd be confused and bemused.

Easiest place to start is valuations arent capped at one year of profit, or last years profit...the silly mistake is the one year thing, the more advanced mistake is looking at profit instead of cash flow.

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