[xpe]

A great, thought-provoking comment. This makes me quite aware that I don't yet have a great theoretical/conceptual foundation for how Bayesian reasoning for one particular experiment links up with experiments that are generalizations of it. In case this sounds too vague, what I mean is this: if a generalized theory has considerable evidence, what bearing does it have one more targeted and narrow experiments? This might be clear or even obvious, but I'm not recollecting written examples of how to run the numbers.