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by buddhu
868 days ago
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Not very likely. Spinoza lived in the 1600s, and European knowledge of classical and pre-classical Indian thought didn't really take off until about the late 1700s. On the Upanishads in particular, there was apparently a translation of some of them into Persian in the 1600s, but Spinoza would have had no exposure to that. A translation into Latin came along in the late 1700s. |
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