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by technocratius 864 days ago
It's statistically significant because there is a difference in outcome between the group receiving treatment and the one that did not which could not be attributed to chance alone, but the difference isn't clinically significant because it was a very small difference (in statistics, this is sometimes also referred to as the _effect size_)
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Wouldn't any statistically significant improvement become clinically significant when applied at a large enough scale, e.g. in global clinical practice?